>>539906
Alright first off, I didn't intend to derail the thread but I had to defend the word of God against mockery. But let me respectfully respond.
>Only if you read it outside the context of the chapter, the book and the NT as a whole,
The context of the chapter is that Jesus got done telling the crowd another true saying and he has started explaining it fully to his disciples.
The context of the book is that Jesus has repeatedly spoken in parables and in sayings equating his words and equating doctrines in terms of physical objects which he then explains their meaning to those who have an ear to hear. In John 4, Jesus told them his meat is to do the will of the Father. And in John 3, Jesus went to explain why being born again isn't a physical birth or physical ritual. It was a real birth however, that had to do with the spirit and not the physical body. In John 5 and 15, he said they are his disciples if his word (which is his flesh) abides in them.
The context of the NT is that Jesus repeatedly equates the word through parables and equates his word to eternal life. In Matthew 16:6, he warns them about the leaven of the pharisees, and the disciples get confused. Matthew 4:4, It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God. Literally a true statement. His word is the object that gives life. Not to be confused with physical meat by any means. This is why I said it was even more important than the breaking of bread or the eucharist. The first precludes the second, in fact if Jesus is to be believed all doctrine and understanding and life springs from the first.
>how can you accept his ascension?
I accept his ascension and also the literal accounts of the Old Testament and the literal accounts of the end times. Everything is in its proper context within the word.
>they are not to be minced into mere symbolism with sophistry.
He is present in the Word. That's no simple symbolism. Also "what he said about the bread and wine"? You seem to be referencing a different passage there friend.
>>539911
I don't see a problem with most of this explanation about John 6:53-60.
>they take Jesus to say here that there is no real importance to his flesh.
Absolutely not true. His word is his flesh and just as sacred and real as his own body. Even while being so-called "abstract" words.
>there is absolutely nothing in the context or the content of verse 63 (nor anything in the scriptures as a whole, I might add) to suggest this platonic slant on Jesus’ words.
Please see above.
>Now, of course, there’s also nothing in these verses that tells us specifically that they must be taken literally.
I do take his words literally. His words are his flesh, they are spirit and they are life.
>For the West, Christ comes in the flesh just to provide a body for the receiving of God’s wrath upon sinners.
You mean for Latins.
>Recall St. Ignatius, bishop of Antioch around 86AD said,
Ok first of all, this is not scripture. Thus it is subject to being misinterpreted. Only Scripture is not of any private interpretation, 2 Peter 1:20. And also subject to possibly having been corrupted in transmission. Only Scripture is incorruptible, 1 Peter 1:23. In other words, to be as clear as I can be, we don't know who really wrote it, why, or who they represent. And being not from the Apostles of whom we learned (2 Timothy 3:14) we can not accept it as truth, or on authority the word of God like as with Scripture (1 Thessalonians 1:5, 1 Thessalonians 2:13). Nor is it in any way necessary/irreplaceable, 2 Timothy 3:16-17. To keep the peace, I'm just speaking in generalities about non-scripture. For this, and out of respect for past and present believers, I will refrain to comment specifically on what you've referenced.