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File: 1425404105034.jpg (62.16 KB,880x495,16:9,aristotle.jpg)

3d288f No.869

Hey /philosophy/,

I get the impression that a lot of you seem to believe that there is a set of objective moral laws. I made the mistake of majoring Human Geography in college and minoring in Philosophy. Since I took several classes examining different societies and cultures; I of course came away with a moral relativist point of view. I want to give equal weight to those who say that are objective truths to moral and immoral actions.

For me the two who best did it were Aristotle and Kant. (Not sure how anyone can take the Utilitarians seriously.) However, I'm a little underwhelmed by both of them. In my current mixed state of philosophical knowledge and ignorance, I think Aristotle did the best job. However, I still don't think he did so conclusively or even particularly close.

So can I ask you /philosophy/, who did the best job, and why?
____________________________
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3d288f No.871

Moral nihilism is where it's and anyone who said otherwise dun goofed.
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3d288f No.876

>>871
Basically. There is no way to arrive at universal moral rules without committing fallacies or outright lying to ourselves.

Nietzsche's idea that ethics was just a lie to avoid admitting that the state of the social world is centered on power and those who have it has some truth to it. You can turn power into an "ethical" value, however, like Marx did. For Marx the good of man was the actualization of his powers, i.e. maximizing the real possibility for all human capacities (something similar to Aristotle's human flourishing).

Out of classical philosophy, Aristotle did the best. Spinoza was the best of the intermediate modernists. Hegel, imo, was the best of the end modernists since he introduced historical society and contingency into ethics. After Hegel, to be an ethicist is to basically be ignorant of the history of ethics and its failure.
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3d288f No.877

>>876
>to be an ethicist is to basically be ignorant of the history of ethics and its failure.
I don't think this is the case with fictionalists and those who think of ethics in terms of formalized compassion, social cohesion and game theory. For instance I don't have any trouble accepting Benatar's antinatalism through his asymmetry principle even though it's as "unfounded" as any other sort of factual or normative claim (Münchhausen trilemma). Lots of moral nihilists/anti-realists/non-cognitivists still write about practical ethics.
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3d288f No.879

>>876

OP asked about moral objectivity, not whether moral rules are universal.

It seems trivial to me. If you can acknowledge that there is any moral rule, then the rule is objectively so, and if its objective then its objective everywhere all of the time (therefore universal).

This isnt even inconsistent with Nietzsche. 'Geneology of Morals' is an account of morality, not a denial of morality.
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3d288f No.882

>>879
Objectivity as I understand it refers to the moral rule existing in itself. There are no moral rules that exist in themselves, all of them exist through humans and the contingent world. Social ethics are not objective, they merely are abstract rules of the general social will; the mass enforces itself on the individual.
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3d288f No.883

>>882

I dont know what the means 'to exist in itself'. What does it mean for a rule 'to exist'?

I also dont get your point about humans. Whats it mean to exist 'through humans'? It makes it sound like, it cant be some anthropologic consequence, and nothing in philosophy should be contingent on such things. Our understanding of arithmetic today is certainly the consequence of human history. Our practice of counting and calculation no doubt is a human thing. And I could still consider mathematic propositions objective (or 'rule').
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3d288f No.885

>>883
To exist in itself, to be objective, is to exist independent of us. Maybe you're postmodern, but this kind of language is usual in analytic and continental thought.
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3d288f No.886

>>885

Im pretty well read in analytic philosophy, and I consider it weird and unusual.

It would be one thing to say that something like goodness exists, or that things that are good exist. Those are objects, and they exist because we can say true things about them, but a rule to exist? That just sounds weird. Its like saying the sentence 'Washington DC is the capital of the US' exists. Its true, and the objects in the sentence exist, but the sentence itself existing? I mean, the physical symbols forming the sentence exist, but that cant be what you consider important. (Analogously I would say the numbers 2 and 4 exist, but not '2 + 2 = 4')

I think rather than 'the rule exists in itself' we should say something like 'the moral proposition is true, and necessarily so'. In which case, I do think there are true moral propositions, that are necessarily so.
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3d288f No.4590

File: 82ae9c878fd7d2b⋯.jpg (48.78 KB,500x500,1:1,82ae9c878fd7d2baf04d653fb4….jpg)

>hey guys im literally the smartest person on earth, allow me the opportunity to look down my nose at you and call you an idiot if you dont think marxism is literally the best thing evar

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4147cf No.5345

Moral relativism is moral nihilism. At any point, simply make a micro-culture that has the rules most advantageous to you at that moment.

>>871

Yes, but game theory can rescue most of the rules. Ironically, game theory meta-ethics is indeed sensitive to local culture. Game theory provides an objective function which spits out (non-moral) rules based on various inputs, which inputs basically boil down to 'what do you want, long term.'

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7f9aa6 No.5685

>>876

>committing fallacies or outright lying to ourselves.

How do Aquinas/Aristotle do this?

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97b15d No.6268

If you are OK with modern-day ppl, you might give Stefan Molyneux (UPB) and Hans Hermann Hoppe (Argumentation ethics) a try.

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b4e686 No.6679

Read Nietzsche, he doesn't specifically have "objective moral laws" but a general principle of "Affirming Life", which is pretty good

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