What is the proper translation of arsenokoitai? The Holy Spirit inspired Paul to use this word, so we must be able to discern its meaning. Unfortunately, Paul doesn’t define it and it appears Paul coined this word for the first time in his writings. How does it affect our understanding of the Bible?
First, to orient ourselves, let us view the word untranslated in context. The word appears twice in the New Testament, both in Paul's writings. First in 1 Cor 6:9 and again in 1 Tim 1:10. The context may give us clues as to how to interpret the true meaning of this word.
1 Cor 6:
>9 Do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived! Fornicators, idolaters, adulterers, male prostitutes, ἀρσενοκοῖται,
>10 thieves, the greedy, drunkards, revilers, robbers—none of these will inherit the kingdom of God.
>11 And this is what some of you used to be. But you were washed, you were sanctified, you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and in the Spirit of our God.
1 Tim 1:
>8 Now we know that the law is good, if one uses it legitimately.
>9 This means understanding that the law is laid down not for the innocent but for the lawless and disobedient, for the godless and sinful, for the unholy and profane, for those who kill their father or mother, for murderers,
>10 fornicators, ἀρσενοκοῖται, slave traders, liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to the sound teaching
>11 that conforms to the glorious gospel of the blessed God, which he entrusted to me.
Both times it is placed in a list next to sexual sin.
Now lets take a deeper look at the Greek.
arsenokoitai appears to be a compound of two different Greek words.
“arsen” means man; “koitai” means bed. So if we make a literal English gloss of the word we get: manbed or bed-men. Now that’s not common English, so let’s see how those two words are used elsewhere in the Bible.
Arsen is easy enough. In Matthew 19:4 Jesus says "the one who made them at the beginning ‘made them male[Arsen] and female,'
“Koitai” or “koite” or “koitas” depending on if its a verb or a noun, can be found three times elsewhere in Paul's writings. Twice in Romans, verses 9:10 and 13:13; and again in Hebrews 13:4.
Romans 9:
>Nor is that all; something similar happened to Rebecca when she had koitēn children by one husband, our ancestor Isaac.
Romans 13:
>13 let us live honorably as in the day, not in reveling and drunkenness, not in koitais and licentiousness, not in quarreling and jealousy.
Hebrews 13:4
>Let marriage be held in honor by all, and let the koitē be kept undefiled; for God will judge fornicators and adulterers.
In all three times, the word is used in reference to sexual relations. First, Rebecca conceived children. Then, Paul advises us to keep us away from sexual promiscuity. And finally, Paul advises us to keep the marriage bed undefiled.
Further context aid may be found in Leviticus as Paul was a Greek speaking Jew. He was most familiar with the Septuagint translation of the Old Testament, which of course was in Greek.
Lev 20:
>13 If a man lies with a male as with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination; they shall be put to death; their blood is upon them.
In the LLX, we read "ἄρσενος κοίτην" transliterated as arsenos koítē right next to each other. These are the same two words Paul compounded together to coin "arsenokoitai."
It seems therefore we can safely conclude when Paul uses arsenokoitai, he means men in bed intimately together.
Now let’s look at how the word has been translated both now and in the past:
1599 GNV:
<buggerers
KJV:
<abusers of themselves with mankind
NASB:
<homosexuals
NRSV:
<Sodomites
It seems there is an odd man out here. The KJV renders the word as "abusers of themselves with mankind." Why does the KJV differ so much from both earlier translations and modern translations? How are we supposed to understand this phrase?
If we slow down the English, I think we can see the KJV rendering is the same. Abusers/misusing, themselves/their bodies, with mankind/the male gender. Also note that “abuse” can have a sexual context, as in to commit sexual assault.
Same for the other use of the word arsenokoites in 1 Timothy. Only there the KJV reads "defile" and not abusers, but it means the same thing.
Paul calls out arsenokoitai in the Corinthians as being unable to inherit the Kingdom of God. Then says they were "washed, sanctified, and justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ." It seems to me therefore, homosexuals can be saved. Can anyone explain if I am understanding this word incorrectly and where I went wrong?