>>785125
>For me, the existence of a truth that's self evident and reliable in and by itself is entirely alien from any intellectual system, including theology.
For you perhaps. But what did Jesus say in John 8:42-47.
>refraining from interconfessional wrestling during our conversation.
Maybe this is a technicality, but I don't have a confession to defend, only scripture.
>I'd like to act in the same spirit so I won't get into sacred scripture and tradition as original sources preserved and interpreted by the magisterium of the church tenant that appears as the valid historical process to me in relation to the texture.
It may appear that way, to you. But also "the heart is deceitful above all things, and desperately wicked."
>I'm sure you've heard it many times and I guess we can't find common ground here.
I'm always willing to build common ground by appealing to God's eternal word. I think in fact, that this is the only possibility to do it. In fact I might even go so far as to say this is precisely the only reason I come here. 2 Peter 1:20 says that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. Whereas all the rest of these matters outside of this are weakly defined and shiftless.
>nor do we have a single textual tradition, but three
It really doesn't matter how you try to break it down though. There's only one uncorrupt, eternally unchanging waypoint. It's the one that speaks truly of itself in the very assertion.
>was entirely put into doubt by the discovery of
It was put into doubt for whom?
>the vulgate was the standard text in all of pre-reformation period Christianity,
Only if you define the people (and I can call it that) who safeguarded the Bible as outside of Christianity, which I've seen done. So either this is another case of that as we saw above with the a-priori definition of "scholars and intellectuals," or else a case of wishful thinking.
>the translation methods, the emphases and structuring of the texture itself indeed changed and morphed with time
You admitted this, I will agree here immediately. It changed John 3:5 and Matthew 6:11.
>you're unwilling to recognize is that it's just as true when it comes to the "textus receptus" tradition.
Where?
>It's not like textural criticism and bible scholarship reached its final stage in the 16th century
No of course not. Real Bible scholarship began with the first word of it spoken or written and continues to this day. However, unbelieving corrupt scholarship has existed since long before Mark 7:7-13.
>It's suffice to say that the 16th century humanist supposition that Byzantine text-type manuscripts are more ancient and thus provide a more reliable base for translation
This isn't the supposition or reasoning or the archetype of the faith at all. First of all, humanists were active in state church denominations yes, but they did not affect authentic churches nor did they manage to drag true Biblical scholarship off course. No, not at any time. And whatever they supposed is not relevant here.
No, the reason why we know what the original language sources are is because we know from the doctrine of preservation as I've just explained. Only someone who fundamentally believes that everything they have is corrupt would even start to think about "levels of reliability" and looking for something "more ancient" instead of looking the correct way.
Third, the real reason why the received text is different is because it is the unchanged original language sources, not because of the ancientness of its sources.
>and new archeological findings and historical-critical methods contradicting it are just conspiratory means to corrupt the texture.
It validates everything 2 Corinthians 2:17 says. There be many which corrupt the word of God. I'm not delving into their motivations for doing this.
>one among many during the early 17th century religious turmoil. It swiftly splintered into dissident groups
Are you talking about the confessional baptist denominations? Yeah there were various attempts at political organizations starting around 1529, but these are merely denominations framed after other denominations and state entities. But the only "movement" to speak of is scripture itself. It's inevitable that anything else would splinter and fracture into millions of pieces.
>even though unlike Tyndale they clearly used it in their translation.
You seriously need to start backing up your claims with hard examples.