>>786608
As many times as we need to point out that the words "useful" and "sufficient" don't mean the same thing, either in 2019 or back when these letters were first written.
Let's cut the translation argument off at the knees and go back to Greek.
The word used in 2 Timothy 3:16 is ὠφέλιμος (óphelimos), used four times in the bible. These are all KJV, but use whatever translation you want, the original word remains:
>1 Timothy 4:8 King James Version (KJV)
>8 For bodily exercise /profiteth/ little: but godliness is /profitable/ unto all things, having promise of the life that now is, and of that which is to come
>2 Timothy 3:16 King James Version (KJV)
>16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is /profitable/ for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteous
> Titus 3:8 King James Version (KJV)
>8 This is a faithful saying, and these things I will that thou affirm constantly, that they which have believed in God might be careful to maintain good works. These things are good and /profitable/ unto men.
KJV always renders this "profitable". Now ask yourself, you being a protestant who believes in the solas, if Titus 3:8 is saying that good works are /sufficient/ for men.
Because that is how you are reading that word. And that's pretty awful exegesis.