Ok couple things here.
>I was told that the Jews rewrote the Old Testament in the 7-8th centuries (so called Masoretic Text) to get rid of what would suggest Jesus to be the Jewish Messiah and that is what most bibles we have are based on, how true is this?
This implies that somehow everyone but the pharisaic rabbis lost the Old Testament at some point… thereby requiring everyone to get it from them and trust whatever they said. This obviously never happened if you believe the prophecies about Scripture being preserved to all generations contained in both the Old and New Testament. Ex. Psalm 119:160, Isaiah 59:21, Matthew 24:35, 1 Peter 1:23-25.
>Many Messianic related passages are wonky in the Masoretic.
You say this based on the fact you take the modern Jewish translations of ancient Hebrew texts as authoritative and accurate. What if you found out they were simply mistranslating words, such as the word for "virgin" in their translations? Would that it surprise you they choose to mistranslate these words considering none of them was able to change the base text?
Also you should at least give an example of something you find wrong. Surely it can't be that hard for you to find one since you're so enthusiastic about this subject.
>But those corrections were by other Christians.
If the prophecies about scripture, as originally given, being preserved without change are true, then there would never have been a need to add new corrections to it. If you think anyone had to add to it later, you need to read Proverbs 30:5-6 and Matthew 24:35.
>I just want the bible less libel to have been altered by Pharisaic Jews.
Couple things here. If the prophecy about the scripture being preserved are true, then nobody had a change to replace the true scripture with a corruption. It always survived and was never surpassed by corruptions.
Secondly, if you aren't even sure what the reliability is of what you're reading and are only looking for the least likely to be corrupted, you will never find anything to believe in.
Thirdly see my point at the start about how nobody had to rely on the Masoretes or any other single source of the Old Testament in the first place. If they had produced a corrupted version, everyone would have known, pointed it out and not used it.
Fourth, if you have some specific problem with what we're saying is the correct original version of the scripture, surely you can find an example somewhere to point to.
>you removed books based on what they gave you not even considering that maybe they tampered with scripture in more ways than just the addition of the Talmud.
I'm pretty sure nobody had to rely on the 9th century masoretes to know what books were part of the Hebrew Old Testament versus the apocrypha which were only found in Greek form. I'm pretty sure even Jerome was aware of this, so how would it be that you think everyone forgot about this and had to do anything based on what "they" gave you.
Also, I don't think anyone added the Talmud to the Old Testament. But I do happen to know about the RCC approving the printing of a "catholic-expurgated" Talmud in 1564. So they were Talmud fans for sure.
>The Masoretic text has a history before the Masoretes
This is what many people don't get. If the Masoretes had actually changed anything, everyone would have noticed this immediately. Calling it an MT then is quite a misnomer because it didn't really come from them. Also, if Jews had the chance to alter the Old Testament, it would have been in Jeremiah 36, but if you read it you can see how God doesn't allow anyone, Jew or otherwise to change his word. If you don't believe God is capable of that then you really have far bigger issues.
Lastly, to bring an example of my own, the Septuagint and non-original language sources corrupt Psalm 2:12. It's supposed to be a prophecy about the Son, but unless you use the originals and you translate it correctly, which the Hexaplar LXX clearly didn't do, they remove it. It just says "embrace discipline" instead. Nothing about the Son.