>>731751
>Apologetics? How?
I didn't mean apologetics, which is why I used the singular, apologetic, aka defense. I know you were just asking a question, but it was defensive. I hope you don't hear me attacking you.
>First of all I I don't believe that there was one divine person and a human son
Neither did Nestorius, least not according to him. That's the thing about the use of the term person in post-Nestorian theology, saying that Nestorianism is the belief in two persons is like saying it's the belief in two Sons. While it is the logical conclusion of what Nestorius said, he'd never admit it, because he realized just how untenable it was. It is also the logical conclusion of what you've said, and that is a serious problem.
>Rather the one person if the Son had a full divine nature but at the incarnation adopted a fully human nature so now He was both fully man and fully God yet distinct and seperate so the two natures do not collide
Surface level description. What was the nature of that adoption, in what sense is He both fully man and fully God, and what is the degree of distinction between them? These questions are where the real meaning is.
>I usually interpret the verse in Matthew as being Christ talking from His human side and not Divine side
And that's the problem. If the interpretation were valid, then when He says "the Son", this does not describe God, and He does not speak of Himself, which leaves us with the dilemma that either the man and the God are two different Sons, or the God is not a Son at all. Again, if they are one and the same Son of God, then the title of Son describes both at the same time. There is no way they can be referred to as Son in isolation from the other without being a Son in isolation to the other. We cannot ascribe the properties of a subject to just one of the natures, because then He is two persons just as much as you and I are two persons who know different things and speak differently.
>This verse here seems to imply that things which occurred to Christs human side were then attributed to His divine side
A 'side' was not crucified, the God-man was crucified. When titles proper to the natures are used in conjunction like this they are not being applied to each other but to the common person. In other words, he says they crucified the Lord of Glory because the man upon the cross was the very Lord of Glory, not that it was a mere man who in some way related to an entirely different person, the Lord of Glory.
>perhaps it will also help us understand how God emptied Himself in Philippians 2:5-8
I don't see how, I would've thought we were agreed that He emptied Himself in the sense of making Himself "of no reputation" as the KJV renders it.
>And regarding Cyril, I've heard He was a monophysite.
>Would like your thoughts on this.
On what, the rumor you've heard? I think it's completely baseless and probably originates from people listening to people who read Cyril as though he were in the context of Chalcedon (to clarify, I think it's the product of people who have never read Cyril misunderstanding people who have misread him).