>>569674
>You're an idiot. Ezekiel's prophecies aren't literal in every sense, and also sometimes very vague.
Sure prophecies aren't literal in every sense, however I find no other reason to think its not literal in this passage.
Show me how this passage CANNOT be taken literally, then i will concede.
> You can't base your whole view of the sacraments entirely off of prophecies of the OT
Is the OT invalid?
I am defending one view and one form of baptism, that is sprinkling using the OT.
Is the OT no longer scripture then?
>We have the NT for a reason
Yes namely, in one aspect to present us with the New Covenant.
>Yes, OT prophesies shed light, but it's not the entire picture.
If you were to read the passages of Ezekiel from which i quoted, (Ezekiel 36:25-27) God is foretelling of a New Covenant, which directly correspond with the New Testament and specifically baptism.
So yes, you can see Ezekiel shedding light on baptism, but not revealing the sacrament.
It does not make what Ezekiel writes invalid.
>Should we take the "third temple" in Ezekiel prophecies literally? Should we take Jeremiah's prophecies about the return of Israel about the literal people of Israel, or the Church?
Again the passages quoted from Ezekiel are clearly foretelling of baptism in the future New Covenant.
Is nothing from the OT prophecies literal?
<Argument from silence
Just as Proties point to John 3.16 for evidence of faith alone,
is it a fallacy if i say to them: "it does not say in John 3.16, 'Believes alone in Him will not perish but have everlasting life" ?
or does John 3.16 already imply faith alone?
>>569622
The poster provided a narrative of a man recounting his baptism, the narrator did not imply that the works of The Holy Spirit apply to those whom have been immersed alone.
>Notice how the Didache only allows it for special circumstances, that is, when there is no possible way to immerse someone.
>It is not the norm nor was it the norm in the early Church.
So not being the norm, therefore invalidates the sacrament?
You think the works of The Holy Spirit rely on what the norm is?
I don't think so.
And if you don't like the Didache;
<"he received baptism in the bed where he lay, by pouring"
(Letter to Fabius of Antioch [A.D. 251]
<Cyprian advised that no one should be "disturbed because the sick are poured upon or sprinkled when they receive the Lord’s grace"
(Letter to a Certain Magnus 69:12 [A.D. 255])
<Tertullian described baptism by saying that it is done "with so great simplicity, without pomp, without any considerable novelty of preparation, and finally, without cost, a man is baptized in water, and amid the utterance of some few words, is sprinkled, and then rises again, not much (or not at all) the cleaner"
(On Baptism, 2 [A.D. 203])