>why do protestant bibles remove verses 9 - 24 from psalm 138?
>Probably because it's partvif the aprocrypha. I can't find an english version if it just the latin one
>>psalm 138:9-24
>They're in Ps139 … well, no, not … perfectly …
>https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Psalm+139&version=KJV (24 verses)
>https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Psalm+139&version=DRA (14 verses)
>My guess would be the reason lies in the differences between the Masoretic and LXX texts. Protty Bibles, particularly the KJV, are more likely to reject the Masoretic for the LXX. Sometimes.
>Very good question. Because things don't line-up perfectly, aye?
>It gets worse: Ps140 are different, too (13 verse vs just 10 DRA)
>Ps141 = 10 verse vs just 8 DRA
>Ps142 = just 7 verse vs 12 DRA
>Ps143 = just 12 verse vs 15 DRA
>Ps144 = just 15 verse vs 21 DRA
>Ps145 = 21 verse vs just 10 DRA
>Ps146 = 10 verse vs just 11 DRA
>Ps147 starts at v12 in the DRA, but otherwise they seem to match
>Ps148, 149 matching numbers of verses
>Ps150 = 6 verse vs just 5 DRA but that seems to be more how the last verse gets split up
>I'd say someone fugged-up but you might take that to be tacit catholic-bashing.
And so, the research continues. Please post here with any insights that you may have to the query.