>>580274
Yes but the Lord didn't double down on the literal meaning of his other metaphors. Look at John 6. If He had just said the following passage, it would be more like the metaphors you mentioned:
32 Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Moses gave you not that bread from heaven; but my Father giveth you the true bread from heaven.
33 For the bread of God is he which cometh down from heaven, and giveth life unto the world.
34 Then said they unto him, Lord, evermore give us this bread.
35 And Jesus said unto them, I am the bread of life: he that cometh to me shall never hunger; and he that believeth on me shall never thirst.
But instead He goes on, becoming even more explicit when the Jews are repulsed by His saying:
48 I am that bread of life.
49 Your fathers did eat manna in the wilderness, and are dead.
50 This is the bread which cometh down from heaven, that a man may eat thereof, and not die.
51 I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.
52 The Jews therefore strove among themselves, saying, How can this man give us his flesh to eat?
53 Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you.
54 Whoso eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.
>55 For my flesh is meat indeed, and my blood is drink indeed.
56 He that eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, dwelleth in me, and I in him.
57 As the living Father hath sent me, and I live by the Father: so he that eateth me, even he shall live by me.
None of the metaphors you gave were that explicit. It would be like if He spoke of Himself as the door and then continued on to say that His hands are doorknobs and His ears are hinges. What's the point of extending the metaphor any further than the first few verses if the Lord did not mean what He said? Besides that, if the Eucharist were truly just bread and wine, then how could it cause sickness to those who partake of it unworthily, as Paul says:
27 Wherefore whosoever shall eat this bread, and drink this cup of the Lord, unworthily, shall be guilty of the body and blood of the Lord.
28 But let a man examine himself, and so let him eat of that bread, and drink of that cup.
29 For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh damnation to himself, not discerning the Lord's body.
30 For this cause many are weak and sickly among you, and many sleep.
It wasn't until the reformation that the practice of treating the Eucharist as being less than the true body and blood of Christ emerged. So if the Lords says it's His body, if Paul says it's His body, if the early Church says it's His body, if all of Christendom up until the reformation says it's His body, then how do you draw the conclusion that God allowed his people to take an offhand remark He had accidentally overemphasized so far as to mistakenly make it the integral part of their worshiping Him for one and a half millennia?