question about translations

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question about translations Christanon 09/07/18 (Fri) 02:49:05 98081b No.697736

i was confronted with a question about hebrews 1:6 today.

it is implied that hebrews 1:6 is quoting something based on the verse.

historically what did scholars believe it was referencing prior to recently (since the septuagint wasnt available for the catholic church and its vulgate)

and how should i address arguments arguing for the septuagint when scholars who demonstrably do not know their ass from their elbow assert that hebrews 1:6 is quoting deuteronomy 32:43 in the septuagint?

Christanon 09/07/18 (Fri) 04:42:14 c55046 No.697747

>>697736

Yeah NT quotes do sound different from the OT especially if it's from the Masoretic Text. Popular modern versions attempt to remedy this by rendering OT quotes in the NT more as they appear in the Masoretic OT as opposed to following the Greek wording. I think the job of a translation is primarily to translate though so I believe it should be rendered the way it is in each respective text.

Christanon 09/07/18 (Fri) 05:02:57 912d72 No.697755

>>697736

>Historically what did (((scholars))) believe…

Christanon 09/07/18 (Fri) 05:09:08 d05d55 No.697757

>>697736

It is quoting the Septuagint. The KJV is a terrible translation that uses corrupted texts. Thee septuagint is the definitive version of the Old Testament, Jews have spent the past 2000 years trying to edit out any references to Jesus they can and a lot of Bibles use those corrupted and edited Old Testament texts instead of the version the apostles themselves quoted from, the Septuagint.

Christanon 09/07/18 (Fri) 05:21:25 4029ba No.697759

>>697757

This is true. And the best thing is that the Dead Sea Scrolls confirmed it.

Christanon 09/07/18 (Fri) 05:28:36 c55046 No.697761

>>697757

Well the translation is pretty accurate to the source texts.

Christanon 09/07/18 (Fri) 05:50:29 d05d55 No.697766

File: a8592b0818beb36⋯.jpg (265.81 KB, 769x993, 769:993, lxx_vs_mt3.jpg)

>>697759

>And the best thing is that the Dead Sea Scrolls confirmed it.

Yeah, they played the "The translators must have gotten it wrong!" card for hundreds of years when disputing the differences. The the DSS were found and surprise, they're far closer to the septuagint then the masoretic text, showing conclusively that the reason the septuagint translates verses differently is because thats what the original hebrew said. The Jews tried to scrub the references to Jesus out of scripture but got caught with their hand in the cookie jar.

Christanon 09/07/18 (Fri) 07:11:18 c55046 No.697774

>>697766

In Isa. 7:14 The word in question is still the same in the MT and Christian translations render it as virgin.

Most translations don't say "like a lion" at Psalm 22:16 and neither does such appear in the MT. Coincidentally the same verb is used for the opening/digging of ears at 40:6.

Christanon 09/07/18 (Fri) 07:34:31 c55046 No.697776

>>697766

Also the act of conceiving in the Greek of Matt. 1:23 uses the same term in 1:18. Only bibles which use archaic English grammar or modernized editions of the KJB such as the OSB translate both instances in Matthew Chapter 1 in the same manner as "with child". It's in the OT that it's rendered as "conceive" presumably following the Hebrew wording. Brenton's Septuagint translation renders it as "a virgin shall conceive in the womb".

Modern translations attempt to render the Isaiah quote in Matt. 1:23 more as it's rendered in the translation of Isaiah translated from the Hebrew MT.