/christian/ - Christian Discussion and Fellowship

Seperation (living apart) is permissible on grounds of adultery.

>is remarriage permissible….

No.

>>672995

>is remarriage permissible

>whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery."

>>672995

It is supposed to say "fornication" there. Modern versions love to change this to "sexual immorality" because it means they can choose what they decide is "immoral."

It is supposed to say "for cause of fornication" there, and this is a reference back to the Law where it was said that if you found your unconsummated wife had not been a virgin, you would not be required to consummate. That is the so-called "cause of fornication." There is no other reason given by the Lord except that which is basically when the wife lies and claims to be a virgin.

>>673005

Now does this include cheating as well? Because that's what I would understand fornication to mean.

>>673025

>Now does this include cheating as well?

No but in a just world by the law of God someone who committed adultery would get the death penalty, and marriage is "until death do us part."

So in a perfectly consistent world, you wouldn't require divorce there.

>>673005

>>673029

So in modern terms it's more like annulment?

>>673029

I'm pretty sure the "until death do us part" is a pretty new thing considering the Sadducees tried to trip up Jesus by asking who you'd be married to in heaven (Pharisees who believed in the resurrection had thoughts on this that weren't as sensible as Jesus's explanation)

>>673042

Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth?

For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband.

So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.

Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ; that ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God. – Romans 7:1-4

Considering this it is apparent that this teaching was discernable from the Law as it was already given, but of course the pharisees and saducees couldn't discern them. Like in John 3:10, "Jesus answered and said unto him, Art thou a master of Israel, and knowest not these things?"

>>673056

While certainly St. Paul is right, you're looking at things out of chronological order.

Marriage -became- until death do us part because of Christ's answer in my quote. It was an open question previous to Christ. You're trying to interpret OT law, you can't use Christ (or Paul alluding to Christ) to support how things were done before Christ.

I agree you've got the correct answer now, but people were looking to understand an ambiguous term and you brought in a concept not known yet.

>>672995

>except on the ground of sexual immorality

this is why you cannot say the Word of God is in english

the exact word is porneia, meaning, that any marriage that was not already nullified by in itself being immoral ie Incestual or whatever, is still binding

so no, you're wife cheating on you is not the go-ahead from Jesus Christ to commit adultery by divorcing and re-marrying

"Advocates of this interpretation point out that porneia is not the usual Greek term for adultery. Indeed, in the passages cited above, Jesus uses the term for adultery (moicheia) and does not identify it with porneia. These advocates point out also that many peoples in the eastern-Mediterranean region had marriage practices that allowed unions forbidden by Leviticus 18. This caused problems when individuals wanted to convert to Judaism and Christianity. Did they have to leave their spouses? Matthew, writing in an eastern-Mediterranean context, would have had reason to insert a clarification to prevent such converts from using the unqualified statement as justification for staying with their current spouses.

The idea that porneia is being used in this narrow way is suggested by two other biblical passages. In Acts 15:29, it is proposed that, to avoid offending Jewish believers, Gentile converts abstain from eating idol meat, blood, strangled animals, and from porneia. These objections are often regarded as being based directly on Leviticus 17–18, where the same things are prohibited in the same order.

The second passage is 1 Corinthians 5:1, where Paul applies the word porneia to the case of a man who has married his stepmother—a case forbidden by Leviticus 18:8. These considerations make it reasonable to assume that porneia is being used in the exceptive clauses to refer to incestuous unions."

https://www.catholic.com/magazine/print-edition/did-jesus-say-adultery-is-grounds-for-divorce

>>673042

"until death do us part" is a teaching of Jesus Christ.

all Christ said in return is that marriage is no longer binding in the Kingdom of Heaven, as we will be as angels, which are not given unto another in marriage

>>673060

>it's a "porneia means unlawful marriage and not sexual immorality alone episode"

Divorce here means separation, not ending of marriage.

>>673106

>I can commit adultery and still go to Heaven

not in the next life, bub

>>672995

mark and luke do not have the exception clause so unless the gospels contradict each-other than the clause must mean something akin to 'invalid' or 'separation' and not divorce as in complete separation of a valid marriage with the ability to remarry again.