>>647393
>Every other version in existence that I have seen says "joshua" instead of "jesus".
Another reason why the KJV is technically correct while many other versions fail to preserve the distinction.
The reason the KJV uses the Greek forms of names in the New Testament is because they are actually different. They are not merely transliterated words, they are actual Greek words that may be the translated equivalent of but that used Greek language norms.
Consider the difference between the two:
John 1:38
Then Jesus turned, and saw them following, and saith unto them, What seek ye? They said unto him, Rabbi, (which is to say, being interpreted, Master,) where dwellest thou?
John 20:16
Jesus saith unto her, Mary. She turned herself, and saith unto him, Rabboni; which is to say, Master.
Rabbi was the transliteration of the actual word, it had to be "interpreted" into Greek, whereas Rabboni was the Greek form of the word being used. It did not have to be interpreted because it was already in Greek.
Likewise, the Greek form of Jeremiah was used in Matthew 16:14 because it is a quote of what someone said, but the transliteration of Jeremiah was instead used in Matthew 2:17 and in Matthew 27:9, being part of the narration. They are different words, and the KJV recognizes the distinction by using the Greek forms of names, and other words, in the New Testament. So Jesus is not the same as Joshua either.
You can see Jesus use the transliteration "Jona" in John 1:42 but the Greek form "Jonas" in John 21:15. Same difference exists between Canaan (Matt. 15:22)/Chanaan (Acts 7:11 & 13:19) and between Sinai/Sina, Eloi/Eli, and many OT names as well that are only given in Greek form. But modern versions erase this distinction. They selectively choose which names to keep in Greek form (Jesus) and which to change to transliteration (Noah, Isaiah, Sarah, etc.)
KJV keeps Greek form Noe, Esaias, Sara and so on. Consistent to that, it keeps Jesus as well.